What does the following statement mean to you?
"I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one can come to the Father except through me."
Do you think that the belief in this statement makes one intolerant?
I don't discuss religion. I think that is a private issue.
Depends on your intention. If you say it as an expression of personal faith, or in an "inclusive" manner (i.e., it is possible for salvation even for those who are not Christians), then it is not intolerant. If you say it in an "exclusivist" manner or to belittle someone else's beliefs, then yes -- it is intolerant.
Of course the issue is what is meant by the phrase "through me". I know many non-Christians who represent the message of Jesus better than many Christians. Claiming the label is far too weak a standard.
The clause "through Me" was spoken by Christ and meant him.
King James Version says "... by Me."
Want to really bend your mind, consider the temporal implications of John 14:6 -- Jesus said that as a living man looking ahead to his crucifixion, not after the fact as a mandated precondition for individual salvation.
Thinking more broadly about the question, it seems to me that intolerance must be predicated on actions, not beliefs. By definition, tolerance means to put up with something that doesn't agree with you.
Belief alone does not define one as tolerant or intolerant; the actions one takes does. The bible is filled with examples of Christ's tolerance -- dining with tax collectors (in context, you might as well substitute "thieves"), saving an adulterous woman from being stoned, etc.
So no, belief in John 14:6 does not automatically make one intolerant.
"Jesus said that as a living man looking ahead to his crucifixion, not after the fact as a mandated precondition for individual salvation."
Ouch, that is a scary notion.
Want to really bend your mind, consider the temporal implications of John 14:6 -- Jesus said that as a living man looking ahead to his crucifixion, not after the fact as a mandated precondition for individual salvation.
Can you clarify? Are you saying that Christ was not privy to God's implications for man of, and prior to, his crucifixion?
I know many non-Christians who represent the message of Jesus better than many Christians.
As do I; but is that enough to fulfill the obligation set forth in that particular verse (as well as others)? The verse referencing good works comes to mind.
Are you saying that Christ was not privy to God's implications for man of, and prior to, his crucifixion?
Not at all -- just the opposite in fact.
But what if Jesus, in saying "... by me" / "... through me", meant that his sacrifice was ALL that is needed for salvation? In other words, rather than a mere "offer" of clemency to we "inmates" on Death Row (an offer which can be refused or disregarded), what if Jesus was abolishing the death penalty for EVERYONE -- regardless of faith, or declarations thereof?
Kinda puts a different spin on the later works of Paul and the Apostles. (Remember, Paul née Saul -- the principal author of the New Testament -- never knew Jesus the man.)